ENEE 411 Homework 3, Problem 1 (Baker 22.16), worked on long-channel Table 9.1. The 5-transistor OTA - an NMOS pair at 10/2, a PMOS active-mirror load at 20/2, and a 10 uA tail - is worked through in full course notation. Part (a) finds the DC operating point at VCM = VDD/2: ID = 5 uA per branch, Vov_n = 0.129 V with VGS = 0.929 V, Vov_p = 0.158 V with VSG = 1.058 V, VS = 1.571 V, plus every node voltage and every saturation check. Part (b) gets the gain from the differential half-circuit, deriving gm1 = 77.5 uA/V, ro2 = 20 M, ro4 = 16 M, and Av = gm1(ro2||ro4) = 690, or 57 dB, with the AC current directions shown. Part (c) fixes the common-mode range, running from a VCM,min of about 2.1 V, since the cascode tail needs VTHN + 2Vov,tail of headroom, up to VCM,max = Vout + VTHN of about 4.74 V. Part (d) gives f3dB = 1/(2pi*Rout*CL) of about 1.8 kHz and fu = gm1/(2pi*CL) of about 1.23 MHz, which is independent of lambda. The 34 slides use real MOSFET-symbol schematics, half-circuit and Bode figures, the body-effect caveat on hand analysis versus SPICE, three traps, and two checks.
Subject: Analog CMOS IC Design · 72 slides · diagram-first lesson
Open the interactive version of this deck · Homework for this lesson
Title
ENEE 411 · Baker 22.16 · Lecture 7
The 5-transistor OTA worked to the number, in the course's own notation. Pin the DC operating point, build the gain from the half-circuit, find the common-mode range, and locate every break frequency.
Objectives
This is the input stage of nearly every op-amp. We work it the way Lecture 7 does - operating point first, then small signal. By the end you can:
VCM = VDD/2: split the tail, find VOV, VGS, VSG, and every node voltage, then check saturation at each device.gm1, ro2, ro4, and combine to Av = gm1*(ro2 || ro4).VCM,min and VCM,max that keep every device alive.fu = gm1/(2*pi*CL)..tran / .ac decks that confirm everything.Warm-up
Discussion prompt
Before we open HW3 · P1: Differential Amplifier (Baker 22.16): without looking back, what was the main idea of HW2 · Small-Signal Gain & Frequency Response (Baker 21.7, 21.26, 21.30, 21.36), and what could you do by the end of it that you could not do before?
Hint: One sentence for the idea, one for the skill. If the second one is blank, that is the part to revisit.
Answer:
ENEE 411 Homework 2, Part 2 of 2 - the four small-signal problems, every DC bias at 20 uA so gm = 155 uA/V and ro = 833 k throughout. 21.26: derive the common-gate gain (1/gmp||rop||ron)/(1/gmn||ron) ~ gmn/gmp ~ 1.
Concept
Problem 22.16 says use the long-channel parameters. This is the Table 9.1 set from Lecture 4a. The reference column is at ID = 20 uA; our circuit runs at a different current, so we scale from it.
| parameter | NMOS | PMOS |
|---|---|---|
| VDD | 5 V | 5 V |
| VTH | 0.8 V | -0.9 V |
| KP = mu*Cox | 120 uA/V^2 | 40 uA/V^2 |
| lambda (at L=2) | 0.01 /V | 0.0125 /V |
| ref gm at ID=20uA | 150 uA/V | 150 uA/V |
| ref ro at ID=20uA | 5 Mohm | 4 Mohm |
| gm*ro (intrinsic gain) | 750 | 600 |
Scaling rules (square law): gm grows like sqrt(ID), and ro = 1/(lambda*ID) shrinks like 1/ID. We will use these to move from the 20 uA reference down to our branch current.
Comparison
Comparison matrix
From Table 9.1 - the long-channel process: refill the NMOS column from what you know. The rest of the table is as it appeared.
| parameter | NMOS | PMOS |
|---|---|---|
| VDD | 5 V | 5 V |
| VTH | 0.8 V | -0.9 V |
| KP = mu*Cox | 120 uA/V^2 | 40 uA/V^2 |
| lambda (at L=2) | 0.01 /V | 0.0125 /V |
| ref gm at ID=20uA | 150 uA/V | 150 uA/V |
| ref ro at ID=20uA | 5 Mohm | 4 Mohm |
| gm*ro (intrinsic gain) | 750 | 600 |
Concept
Figure (svg): Five-transistor operational transconductance amplifier. At the top, two PMOS M3 (left) and M4 (right) hang from VDD; M3 is diode-connected (its gate ties to its own drain) and its gate wire runs across to M4's gate, forming a current mirror. Below them sit the NMOS input pair M1 (left, gate driven by vid/2) and M2 (right, gate at VCM); their drains connect to M3 and M4 respectively. The two NMOS sources join at a tail node that a 10 microamp current source ISS pulls down to ground. The output vout is the M2/M4 drain node on the right, loaded by a 10 pF capacitor.
M1, M2 are the NMOS input pair (10/2). M3, M4 are the PMOS current-mirror load (20/2). The tail source ISS = 10 uA sets the total current; the bubble on M3/M4 marks them as PMOS.
M3 is diode-connected (gate tied to drain) - it builds the mirror voltage. M4 copies it. The single-ended output vout is the M2/M4 drain, loaded by CL = 10 pF. The input test is vin = 1 mV at 1 kHz.
Intuition
It amplifies the difference of its inputs and rejects whatever they share. Write the two inputs as a difference and a common part:
\[ v_{id}=v_{G1}-v_{G2}\qquad V_{CM}=\tfrac{v_{G1}+v_{G2}}{2} \]
The output responds with a differential gain Adm to vid and a tiny common-mode gain Acm to VCM. Their ratio is the figure of merit:
\[ \text{CMRR}=\left|\frac{A_{dm}}{A_{cm}}\right| \]
Today: parts (a)-(d) are all about Adm and the operating point that produces it. The key fact we lean on constantly - as long as M1 and M2 stay saturated, moving VCM does not move the outputs.
Counterexample
Discussion prompt
The output responds with a differential gain Adm to vid and a tiny common-mode gain Acm to VCM. Their ratio is the figure of merit:
That is stated as though it always holds. Do one of two things: produce a case where it fails, or say precisely what rules such a case out. "It just does" is not on the menu.
Hint: Hunt at the extremes first — zero, one, negative, empty, equal. If every extreme survives, the reason they survive is the proof.
Answer:
Today: parts (a)-(d) are all about Adm and the operating point that produces it. The key fact we lean on constantly - as long as M1 and M2 stay saturated, moving VCM does not move the outputs.
Constraint
Discussion prompt
Run Recipe: the whole problem, in order with this step confiscated:
Gain: draw the differential half-circuit, then Av = gm1*(ro2 || ro4).
Is it still possible? If it is, say what takes its place and what it costs you. If it is not, say exactly what that step was providing that nothing else does.
Hint: A step you can drop for free was never load-bearing. If you cannot drop it, name the thing that goes wrong the moment it is gone.
Answer:
ISS evenly (ID = ISS/2); invert the square law for each VOV; add the threshold for VGS/VSG; walk every node voltage; **check `VDS…gm = 2*ID/VOV, ro = 1/(lambda*ID).Av = gm1*(ro2 || ro4).VCM up until an input device leaves saturation (VCM,max), down until the tail source starves (VCM,min).f3dB = 1/(2*pi*Rout*CL); then fu = gm1/(2*pi*CL).Pattern
Lecture 4a's small-signal procedure, specialized to this amp:
ISS evenly (ID = ISS/2); invert the square law for each VOV; add the threshold for VGS/VSG; walk every node voltage; check VDS >= VOV at every device.gm = 2*ID/VOV, ro = 1/(lambda*ID).Av = gm1*(ro2 || ro4).VCM up until an input device leaves saturation (VCM,max), down until the tail source starves (VCM,min).f3dB = 1/(2*pi*Rout*CL); then fu = gm1/(2*pi*CL).Edge cases
Discussion prompt
Recipe: the whole problem, in order works on the cases you have just seen. Push it to the edge: what is the most degenerate input it still handles — empty, zero, one item, everything equal — and what is the first case where it stops being true? Name the case, not just "it breaks".
Hint: Try the smallest legal input, then the largest, then the one where two things collide. Methods are specified at their edges; the middle takes care of itself.
Answer:
Lecture 4a's small-signal procedure, specialized to this amp:
Section
VCM = VDD/2 = 2.5 V
Estimation
Predict first
With vG1 = vG2 = VCM, the pair is perfectly balanced, so the matched M1 and M2 share the tail current equally (Lecture 7):
Commit before you compute: what does (a) Step 1 - the tail current splits in two come out to? A rough magnitude and the right form is enough — the point is to have something concrete to be wrong about.
Correct: The load devices carry the same current
Why: A prediction you can defend turns the computation into a check rather than a leap of faith — and an answer that contradicts it is caught on the spot. M3 is in series with M1 and M4 is in series with M2, so ID3 = ID4 = 5 uA too.
Worked example
With vG1 = vG2 = VCM, the pair is perfectly balanced, so the matched M1 and M2 share the tail current equally (Lecture 7):
\[ I_{D1}=I_{D2}=\frac{I_{SS}}{2}=\frac{10\,\mu A}{2}=5\,\mu A \]
The load devices carry the same current
Why: M3 is in series with M1 and M4 is in series with M2, so ID3 = ID4 = 5 uA too. Every device in this amp sits at 5 uA - that is the operating current we scale all parameters to.
Reverse engineer
Discussion prompt
Work backwards. The example finished here:
The load devices carry the same current
What was it asked to do, and what must it have been given? Reconstruct the problem from its answer.
Hint: Every quantity in the result had to enter somewhere. Account for each one.
Answer:
With vG1 = vG2 = VCM, the pair is perfectly balanced, so the matched M1 and M2 share the tail current equally (Lecture 7):
Missing information
Discussion prompt
Invert the saturation square law for M1 (W/L = 10/2 = 5, KPn = 120 uA/V^2) to get the overdrive VOV (the course also calls this VDS,sat):
What do you need to know — or decide — before the first line can be written? List everything the problem has to hand you.
Hint: Anything you would have to invent to get started is a thing the problem must supply.
Answer:
VOV,n = sqrt(10uA / 600uA) = sqrt(0.0167) = 0.129 V. (At the 20 uA reference VOV would be 0.25 V; quartering the current drops VOV by sqrt(4) = 2x.)
Worked example
Invert the saturation square law for M1 (W/L = 10/2 = 5, KPn = 120 uA/V^2) to get the overdrive VOV (the course also calls this VDS,sat):
\[ I_D=\tfrac12 KP_n\tfrac{W}{L}V_{OV,n}^2\;\Rightarrow\;V_{OV,n}=\sqrt{\frac{2I_D}{KP_n\,(W/L)}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(5\,\mu A)}{(120\,\mu A)(5)}} \]
Evaluate the overdrive
Why: VOV,n = sqrt(10uA / 600uA) = sqrt(0.0167) = 0.129 V. (At the 20 uA reference VOV would be 0.25 V; quartering the current drops VOV by sqrt(4) = 2x.)
Add the threshold for VGS
Why: VGS1 = VTHN + VOV,n = 0.8 + 0.129 = 0.929 V. This is the gate-source voltage on each input device.
Notation
Annotate
From (a) Step 2 - overdrive & VGS of the NMOS pair — read this one piece at a time. What is each part doing?
On: \( I_D=\tfrac12 KP_n\tfrac{W}{L}V_{OV,n}^2\;\Rightarrow\;V_{OV,n}=\sqrt{\frac{2I_D}{KP_n\,(W/L)}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(5\,\mu A)}{(120\,\mu A)(5)}} \)
Worked example
Same inversion for the PMOS load M3/M4 (20/2, so W/L = 10, KPp = 40 uA/V^2). For PMOS, every voltage is source-relative:
\[ V_{OV,p}=\sqrt{\frac{2I_D}{KP_p\,(W/L)}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(5\,\mu A)}{(40\,\mu A)(10)}}=\sqrt{0.025}=0.158\,\text{V} \]
Add the PMOS threshold for VSG
Why: VSG = |VTHP| + VOV,p = 0.9 + 0.158 = 1.058 V for M3 and M4. The diode-connected M3 develops exactly this VSG to sustain its 5 uA.
Picture it
Animation
Shows: Each line of the worked example "(a) Step 3 - overdrive & VSG of the PMOS load", appearing one at a time.
The same working the example does, in the order a tutor would write it.
Takeaway: VSG = |VTHP| + VOV,p = 0.9 + 0.158 = 1.058 V for M3 and M4. The diode-connected M3 develops exactly this VSG to sustain its 5 uA.
Worked example
Figure (svg): Vertical voltage ladder from 0 to 5 volts. The tail/source node VS sits at 1.571 V. The drains VD1, VD3 and the output Vout all sit at 3.942 V, one VSG (1.058 V) below the 5 V rail. The gap from VS up to the drains is the drain-source voltage of the input devices, about 2.37 V.
Now label every node. The tail (source) node is one VGS below the inputs:
\[ V_S=V_{CM}-V_{GS1}=2.5-0.929=1.571\,\text{V} \]
The diode node = M1/M3 drain
Why: M3's drain is one VSG below VDD: VD1 = VD3 = VDD - VSG = 5 - 1.058 = 3.942 V. That is also the mirror-gate voltage.
The output node
Why: Balanced, M4 mirrors M3, so the output self-biases to the same level: Vout = VD2 = VD4 = 3.942 V. (Detail on the next slide.)
Picture it
Animation
Shows: Each line of the worked example "(a) Step 4 - walk every node voltage", appearing one at a time.
The same working the example does, in the order a tutor would write it.
Takeaway: Balanced, M4 mirrors M3, so the output self-biases to the same level: Vout = VD2 = VD4 = 3.942 V. (Detail on the next slide.)
Concept
The output is a high-impedance node - M2 pulls 5 uA down, M4 pushes 5 uA up, and the voltage floats to wherever those balance.
Because M4 is an identical copy of M3 with the same VSG, it wants to source exactly the 5 uA that the diode side carries. M2 sinks exactly 5 uA. They balance when M4's drain sits at the same level as M3's drain:
\[ V_{out}\approx V_{DD}-V_{SG}=5-1.058=3.942\,\text{V} \]
In a real chip, feedback pins this exactly; for the hand calculation, VDD - VSG is the answer, and SPICE lands right next to it.
Analogy
Discussion prompt
Explain (a) Why Vout lands at VDD - VSG by analogy to something with no Analog CMOS IC Design in it at all — a queue, a recipe, a map, a bank balance, whatever fits. Then say where your analogy breaks.
Hint: An analogy that never breaks is not an analogy, it is the same idea wearing a hat. Find the seam — that is the part that is actually new.
Answer:
The output is a high-impedance node - M2 pulls 5 uA down, M4 pushes 5 uA up, and the voltage floats to wherever those balance.
Pattern
Predict first
The table runs: M1 | VD1 - VS = 3.942 - 1.571 = 2.37 V | vs 0.129 V | saturated · M2 | Vout - VS = 3.942 - 1.571 = 2.37 V | vs 0.129 V | saturated · M3 (diode) | VSD = VSG = 1.058 V | vs 0.158 V | saturated
In (a) Step 5 - check saturation at every device, given the rows so far: what is the next one — the row where device is M4?
Correct: M4 | VDD - Vout = 5 - 3.942 = 1.058 V | vs 0.158 V | saturated
| device | VDS or VSD | >= VOV? | verdict |
|---|---|---|---|
| M1 | VD1 - VS = 3.942 - 1.571 = 2.37 V | vs 0.129 V | saturated |
| M2 | Vout - VS = 3.942 - 1.571 = 2.37 V | vs 0.129 V | saturated |
| M3 (diode) | VSD = VSG = 1.058 V | vs 0.158 V | saturated |
| M4 | VDD - Vout = 5 - 3.942 = 1.058 V | vs 0.158 V | saturated |
Why: The relationship between the columns, not the individual numbers, is what generates the next row. The tail node VS = 1.571 V is well above the ~0.2-0.4 V a current source needs.
Worked example
The square law is only valid in saturation, so verify VDS >= VOV (NMOS) and VSD >= VOV (PMOS) everywhere:
| device | VDS or VSD | >= VOV? | verdict |
|---|---|---|---|
| M1 | VD1 - VS = 3.942 - 1.571 = 2.37 V | vs 0.129 V | saturated |
| M2 | Vout - VS = 3.942 - 1.571 = 2.37 V | vs 0.129 V | saturated |
| M3 (diode) | VSD = VSG = 1.058 V | vs 0.158 V | saturated |
| M4 | VDD - Vout = 5 - 3.942 = 1.058 V | vs 0.158 V | saturated |
Check the tail source has headroom
Why: The tail node VS = 1.571 V is well above the ~0.2-0.4 V a current source needs. Every device is comfortably saturated, so all our square-law numbers are valid.
Comparison
Comparison matrix
From (a) Step 5 - check saturation at every device: refill the >= VOV? column from what you know. The rest of the table is as it appeared.
| device | VDS or VSD | >= VOV? | verdict |
|---|---|---|---|
| M1 | VD1 - VS = 3.942 - 1.571 = 2.37 V | vs 0.129 V | saturated |
| M2 | Vout - VS = 3.942 - 1.571 = 2.37 V | vs 0.129 V | saturated |
| M3 (diode) | VSD = VSG = 1.058 V | vs 0.158 V | saturated |
| M4 | VDD - Vout = 5 - 3.942 = 1.058 V | vs 0.158 V | saturated |
Anomaly
Predict first
A student writes this, and it looks reasonable:
Putting the whole 10 uA tail current through each input device.
It is wrong. Say what breaks — and say it before you turn the page.
Correct: Gives VOV,n = 0.183 V and VGS = 0.983 V - and every node voltage, gm, and ro downstream is now wrong.
A balanced pair splits the tail: each branch carries ISS/2 = 5 uA.
Why: Gives VOV,n = 0.183 V and VGS = 0.983 V - and every node voltage, gm, and ro downstream is now wrong.
Trap
Putting the whole 10 uA tail current through each input device.
Invert the square law at 10 uA
Why: Gives VOV,n = 0.183 V and VGS = 0.983 V - and every node voltage, gm, and ro downstream is now wrong.
A balanced pair splits the tail: each branch carries ISS/2 = 5 uA.
Invert the square law at 5 uA
Why: VOV,n = 0.129 V, VGS = 0.929 V. Only 5 uA per branch keeps the mirror, the node voltages, and the saturation checks self-consistent.
Concept
Lecture 4a flags this explicitly: M1/M2 sources sit above ground (VS = 1.571 V), so their source-to-bulk voltage is nonzero and the body effect raises VTHN (toward ~1.1 V).
A higher VTHN means a higher VGS, so SPICE will report VS a bit lower than our 1.571 V. We neglect the body effect by hand (as the course does) and let the .op simulation give the exact number. Expect a small, explainable gap - not an error.
Section
Av = gm1 (ro2 || ro4)
Concept
From Lecture 4a, every small-signal analysis is three moves:
gm, ro from that DC point.When the DC sources vanish, the symmetric pair splits into a half-circuit we can solve like a single common-source stage.
Analogy
Discussion prompt
Explain (b) The small-signal procedure by analogy to something with no Analog CMOS IC Design in it at all — a queue, a recipe, a map, a bank balance, whatever fits. Then say where your analogy breaks.
Hint: An analogy that never breaks is not an analogy, it is the same idea wearing a hat. Find the seam — that is the part that is actually new.
Answer:
From Lecture 4a, every small-signal analysis is three moves:
Intuition
Figure (svg): The differential half-circuit. On the left, the full pair: M1 and M2 with their sources joined at the tail node. A label notes that for a pure differential input the tail node does not move, so it is an AC virtual ground. On the right, the resulting half-circuit: a single common-source transistor M1 driven by vid/2, its drain loaded by the parallel combination of ro2 and ro4, producing the output.
Drive the inputs antisymmetrically (+vid/2 on M1, -vid/2 on M2). By symmetry the tail node does not move at all - it is an AC virtual ground (Lecture 7).
With the tail pinned, each side is just a common-source amplifier: M1's transconductance drives the output resistance at its drain.
The active mirror then folds M1's signal current over to the output node and adds it to M2's, so the single-ended output sees the full gm1 of the pair into the output resistance ro2 || ro4.
Counterexample
Discussion prompt
Drive the inputs antisymmetrically (+vid/2 on M1, -vid/2 on M2). By symmetry the tail node does not move at all - it is an AC virtual ground (Lecture 7).
That is stated as though it always holds. Do one of two things: produce a case where it fails, or say precisely what rules such a case out. "It just does" is not on the menu.
Hint: Hunt at the extremes first — zero, one, negative, empty, equal. If every extreme survives, the reason they survive is the proof.
Answer:
With the tail pinned, each side is just a common-source amplifier: M1's transconductance drives the output resistance at its drain.
Worked example
Evaluate gm at the operating point (ID = 5 uA, VOV,n = 0.129 V). Two equivalent forms:
\[ g_{m1}=\frac{2I_D}{V_{OV,n}}=\sqrt{2\,KP_n\tfrac{W}{L}I_D} \]
Plug in the numbers
Why: gm1 = 2(5 uA)/0.129 V = 77.5 uA/V. Cross-check vs the table: 150 uA/V at 20 uA, scaled by sqrt(5/20) = 0.5, gives ~75 uA/V. Consistent (the small gap is rounding in KP).
Picture it
Animation
Shows: Each line of the worked example "(b) Step 1 - the transconductance gm1", appearing one at a time.
The same working the example does, in the order a tutor would write it.
Takeaway: gm1 = 2(5 uA)/0.129 V = 77.5 uA/V. Cross-check vs the table: 150 uA/V at 20 uA, scaled by sqrt(5/20) = 0.5, gives ~75 uA/V. Consistent (the small gap is rounding in KP).
Estimation
Predict first
Output resistance comes from channel-length modulation, ro = 1/(lambda*ID), with the table's lambda (NMOS 0.01, PMOS 0.0125) at ID = 5 uA:
Commit before you compute: what does (b) Step 2 - the output resistances ro2, ro4 come out to? A rough magnitude and the right form is enough — the point is to have something concrete to be wrong about.
Correct: Sanity-check against the table
Why: A prediction you can defend turns the computation into a check rather than a leap of faith — and an answer that contradicts it is caught on the spot. The table lists ron = 5 Mohm, rop = 4 Mohm at 20 uA.
Worked example
Output resistance comes from channel-length modulation, ro = 1/(lambda*ID), with the table's lambda (NMOS 0.01, PMOS 0.0125) at ID = 5 uA:
\[ r_{o2}=\frac{1}{\lambda_n I_D}=\frac{1}{(0.01)(5\,\mu A)}=20\,M\Omega \]
\[ r_{o4}=\frac{1}{\lambda_p I_D}=\frac{1}{(0.0125)(5\,\mu A)}=16\,M\Omega \]
Sanity-check against the table
Why: The table lists ron = 5 Mohm, rop = 4 Mohm at 20 uA. At 5 uA (a quarter of the current) ro is 4x larger: 20 Mohm and 16 Mohm. Exactly what we got.
Picture it
Animation
Shows: Each line of the worked example "(b) Step 2 - the output resistances ro2, ro4", appearing one at a time.
The same working the example does, in the order a tutor would write it.
Takeaway: The table lists ron = 5 Mohm, rop = 4 Mohm at 20 uA. At 5 uA (a quarter of the current) ro is 4x larger: 20 Mohm and 16 Mohm. Exactly what we got.
Worked example
The output node carries both ro2 and ro4 in parallel:
\[ R_{out}=r_{o2}\,\|\,r_{o4}=\frac{(20)(16)}{20+16}\,M\Omega=8.89\,M\Omega \]
And the differential gain is the pair's transconductance into that resistance:
\[ A_v=g_{m1}\,(r_{o2}\,\|\,r_{o4})=(77.5\,\mu A/V)(8.89\,M\Omega)\approx\boxed{690} \]
Express in dB
Why: 20log10(690) = 57 dB. The big ro (lambda is only ~0.01) is exactly why a one-stage long-channel OTA reaches the high-50s dB - the same story as the table's intrinsic gain gmro = 750.
Picture it
Animation
Shows: Each line of the worked example "(b) Step 3 - assemble the gain", appearing one at a time.
The same working the example does, in the order a tutor would write it.
Takeaway: 20log10(690) = 57 dB. The big ro (lambda is only ~0.01) is exactly why a one-stage long-channel OTA reaches the high-50s dB - the same story as the table's intrinsic gain gmro = 750.
Ranking
Put in order
Put the moves of (b) The AC drain currents - directions into the order they have to happen.
Why: These are the moves of the worked example in the order it makes them, and each one is set up by the one before it. id1 = +gm1*(vid/2) flows down through M1 and up through diode-connected M3.
Worked example
Lecture asks you to be explicit about current directions. Push vin up by +vid/2:
M1 current rises
Why: id1 = +gm1*(vid/2) flows down through M1 and up through diode-connected M3.
M2 current falls
Why: id2 = -gm1*(vid/2): M2 pulls less current from the output node.
The mirror folds M1's current to the output
Why: M4 copies M3's increased current and pushes +id into the output node, while M2 pulls +id out (it sinks less). The two ADD: net = gm1*vid into Rout.
SPICE check (.tran): apply vin = 1 mV at 1 kHz; vout swings ~690 mV and inverted. Probe id(M1) and id(M4) to watch the AC currents add at the output.
Reverse engineer
Discussion prompt
Work backwards. The example finished here:
The mirror folds M1's current to the output
What was it asked to do, and what must it have been given? Reconstruct the problem from its answer.
Hint: Every quantity in the result had to enter somewhere. Account for each one.
Answer:
Lecture asks you to be explicit about current directions. Push vin up by +vid/2:
Anomaly
Predict first
A student writes this, and it looks reasonable:
Treating the active-mirror OTA like a resistively-loaded pair that delivers only half the transconductance to a single output.
It is wrong. Say what breaks — and say it before you turn the page.
Correct: Halving gm gives Av ~ 345 and fu ~ 0.6 MHz - both a factor of two low.
The current mirror adds M1's and M2's contributions at the output.
Why: Halving gm gives Av ~ 345 and fu ~ 0.6 MHz - both a factor of two low. The folded mirror current is the missing half.
Trap
Treating the active-mirror OTA like a resistively-loaded pair that delivers only half the transconductance to a single output.
Write Av = (gm1/2)(ro2||ro4)
Why: Halving gm gives Av ~ 345 and fu ~ 0.6 MHz - both a factor of two low. The folded mirror current is the missing half.
The current mirror adds M1's and M2's contributions at the output.
Write Av = gm1*(ro2||ro4)
Why: Full gm1 appears at the output, so Av ~ 690. The active mirror is exactly the trick that recovers the factor of two a single-ended resistive load would lose.
Break the constraint
Discussion prompt
The rule this trap just fixed:
Full gm1 appears at the output, so Av ~ 690. The active mirror is exactly the trick that recovers the factor of two a single-ended resistive load would lose.
Now break it on purpose. Build a case that violates it and follow the consequences until something visibly fails. Where does the failure first show up — and would you have noticed it if you had not been looking?
Hint: The dangerous rules are the ones whose violation still produces an answer. If yours fails loudly, try to find one that fails quietly.
Answer:
Halving gm gives Av ~ 345 and fu ~ 0.6 MHz - both a factor of two low. The folded mirror current is the missing half.
Section
VCM,min to VCM,max
Worked example
Raise VCM. The tail node rises with it (VS = VCM - VGS). The ceiling is hit when an input device leaves saturation - M1 enters triode when its gate climbs one VTHN above its drain (which sits at Vout):
\[ V_{CM,\max}=V_{out}+V_{THN}=3.942+0.8=4.74\,\text{V} \]
Read it physically
Why: Above 4.74 V the input pair can no longer keep VDS1 >= VOV; M1 slides into triode, the square law breaks, and the gain collapses. So 4.74 V is the highest usable common-mode input.
Picture it
Animation
Shows: Each line of the worked example "(c) The upper limit VCM,max", appearing one at a time.
The same working the example does, in the order a tutor would write it.
Takeaway: Above 4.74 V the input pair can no longer keep VDS1 >= VOV; M1 slides into triode, the square law breaks, and the gain collapses. So 4.74 V is the highest usable common-mode input.
Fill the middle
Fill in the blanks
From (c) The lower limit VCM,min — finish the line. Write what belongs on the right of the equals sign before you look.
V_V_{S,\min}+V_{GS}\approx 2.1\,\text{V} = ___
Why: Producing the right-hand side unprompted is the difference between recognising this line and being able to use it. VCM,min = VS,min + VGS = 1.16 + 0.929 ~ 2.1 V.
Worked example
Lower VCM and the tail node VS = VCM - VGS falls toward the tail current source. Here the tail is a cascode current mirror (the bottom of the schematic is a two-high NMOS stack), so it needs more headroom than a single device - about VTHN + 2*VOV,tail to keep BOTH cascode devices saturated. With the tail 10/2 at 10 uA, VOV,tail ~ 0.18 V:
\[ V_{S,\min}\approx V_{THN}+2V_{OV,tail}\approx 0.8+2(0.18)\approx 1.16\,\text{V} \]
Refer it back to the input
Why: VCM,min = VS,min + VGS = 1.16 + 0.929 ~ 2.1 V. A single-device tail would need only ~0.2 V (giving VCM,min ~ 1.3 V) - but this circuit's cascode tail raises the floor. Sweep VCM in a SPICE .dc to see exactly where the gain collapses.
\[ V_{CM,\min}=V_{S,\min}+V_{GS}\approx 2.1\,\text{V} \]
State the full range
Why: Input common-mode range is roughly 2.1 V to 4.74 V (the VCM = 2.5 V operating point sits safely inside it). The answer the problem specifically wants is the ceiling expressed in terms of the output: VCM,max = Vout + VTHN.
Picture it
Animation
Shows: Each line of the worked example "(c) The lower limit VCM,min", appearing one at a time.
The same working the example does, in the order a tutor would write it.
Takeaway: Input common-mode range is roughly 2.1 V to 4.74 V (the VCM = 2.5 V operating point sits safely inside it). The answer the problem specifically wants is the ceiling expressed in terms of the output: VCM,max = Vout + VTHN.
Anomaly
Predict first
A student writes this, and it looks reasonable:
Testing M1's saturation as if its source were at ground, so 'any VCM below VDD is fine.'
It is wrong. Say what breaks — and say it before you turn the page.
Correct: Forgets the input drain is held near 3.94 V by the load.
Reference M1's saturation to its own drain, which sits at Vout.
Why: Forgets the input drain is held near 3.94 V by the load. You'd wrongly allow VCM all the way to VDD.
Trap
Testing M1's saturation as if its source were at ground, so 'any VCM below VDD is fine.'
Ignore that VD1 = Vout = 3.942 V
Why: Forgets the input drain is held near 3.94 V by the load. You'd wrongly allow VCM all the way to VDD.
Reference M1's saturation to its own drain, which sits at Vout.
Require VCM <= Vout + VTHN
Why: M1 stays saturated only while its gate is at most VTHN above its drain. That puts the ceiling at 4.74 V, not 5 V.
Section
one dominant pole
Missing information
Discussion prompt
The output node carries the full output resistance Rout and the load CL = 10 pF. One pole:
What do you need to know — or decide — before the first line can be written? List everything the problem has to hand you.
Hint: Anything you would have to invent to get started is a thing the problem must supply.
Answer:
Rout is huge (8.89 Mohm), so even a 10 pF load gives a very low corner. The internal nodes are low-impedance (1/gm of the diode), so their poles sit far higher and don't matter here.
Worked example
Figure (svg): Bode magnitude plot on log-frequency axes. The gain is flat at 57 dB up to the 3-dB corner near 1.8 kHz, then falls at 20 dB per decade, crossing 0 dB (unity gain) at about 1.23 MHz.
The output node carries the full output resistance Rout and the load CL = 10 pF. One pole:
\[ f_{3dB}=\frac{1}{2\pi R_{out}C_L}=\frac{1}{2\pi(8.89\,M\Omega)(10\,pF)}\approx 1.8\,\text{kHz} \]
Why this node dominates
Why: Rout is huge (8.89 Mohm), so even a 10 pF load gives a very low corner. The internal nodes are low-impedance (1/gm of the diode), so their poles sit far higher and don't matter here.
Picture it
Animation
Shows: Each line of the worked example "(d) The 3-dB frequency", appearing one at a time.
The same working the example does, in the order a tutor would write it.
Takeaway: Rout is huge (8.89 Mohm), so even a 10 pF load gives a very low corner. The internal nodes are low-impedance (1/gm of the diode), so their poles sit far higher and don't matter here.
Estimation
Predict first
Above f3dB the gain rolls off at 20 dB/decade. Unity gain (|Av| = 1) is reached at Av times higher frequency:
Commit before you compute: what does (d) The unity-gain frequency come out to? A rough magnitude and the right form is enough — the point is to have something concrete to be wrong about.
Correct: Note what fu does NOT depend on
Why: A prediction you can defend turns the computation into a check rather than a leap of faith — and an answer that contradicts it is caught on the spot. fu has no lambda and no ro in it.
Worked example
Above f3dB the gain rolls off at 20 dB/decade. Unity gain (|Av| = 1) is reached at Av times higher frequency:
\[ f_u=A_v\cdot f_{3dB}=690\times 1.79\,\text{kHz}=1.23\,\text{MHz} \]
There is a cleaner form - the Rout cancels, leaving only gm1 and CL:
\[ f_u=\frac{g_{m1}}{2\pi C_L}=\frac{77.5\,\mu A/V}{2\pi(10\,pF)}\approx 1.23\,\text{MHz} \]
Note what fu does NOT depend on
Why: fu has no lambda and no ro in it. So even though our gain correction (lambda fix) moved Av from 130 to 690, fu stayed put at 1.23 MHz. It is set by gm and CL alone.
Picture it
Animation
Shows: Each line of the worked example "(d) The unity-gain frequency", appearing one at a time.
The same working the example does, in the order a tutor would write it.
Takeaway: fu has no lambda and no ro in it. So even though our gain correction (lambda fix) moved Av from 130 to 690, fu stayed put at 1.23 MHz. It is set by gm and CL alone.
Anomaly
Predict first
A student writes this, and it looks reasonable:
Reporting the 3-dB corner as the unity-gain frequency.
It is wrong. Say what breaks — and say it before you turn the page.
Correct: That is where the gain first DROPS by 3 dB, with the gain still ~690.
Unity gain is Av times higher than the corner.
Why: That is where the gain first DROPS by 3 dB, with the gain still ~690. The amplifier is nowhere near unity gain yet.
Trap
Reporting the 3-dB corner as the unity-gain frequency.
Quote fu ~ 1.8 kHz
Why: That is where the gain first DROPS by 3 dB, with the gain still ~690. The amplifier is nowhere near unity gain yet.
Unity gain is Av times higher than the corner.
fu = Av * f3dB = gm1/(2piCL) ~ 1.23 MHz
Why: Walk the -20 dB/decade line down from 57 dB to 0 dB: that is ~2.8 decades, landing near 1.23 MHz.
Two truths and a lie
Sort into buckets
Some of these hold up and some are the exact mistakes this lesson is built to prevent. Sort them.
Adm to vid and a tiny common-mode gain Acm to VCM. Their ratio is the figure of merit:; The output is a high-impedance node - M2 pulls 5 uA down, M4 pushes 5 uA up, and the voltage floats to wherever those balance.; From Lecture 4a, every small-signal analysis is three moves:Elimination
Eliminate the wrong options
What is the low-frequency differential gain of this OTA?
3 of these 4 are wrong. Strike them one at a time, and say what rules each one out before you strike the next. The survivor is the answer.
Survives elimination: A
Why: ro2||ro4 = (2016)/(20+16) = 8.89 Mohm. Av = gm1Rout = 77.5 uA/V * 8.89 Mohm = 690, i.e. 57 dB. The large ro (small lambda) is what makes a single long-channel stage this high.
Check
gm1 = 77.5 uA/V, ro2 = 20 Mohm (NMOS), ro4 = 16 Mohm (PMOS). Find Av = gm1*(ro2||ro4). Solve before tapping.
Check your understanding
What is the low-frequency differential gain of this OTA?
Answer: A
Why: ro2||ro4 = (2016)/(20+16) = 8.89 Mohm. Av = gm1Rout = 77.5 uA/V * 8.89 Mohm = 690, i.e. 57 dB. The large ro (small lambda) is what makes a single long-channel stage this high.
Elimination
Eliminate the wrong options
The unity-gain frequency fu of this diff-amp is:
3 of these 4 are wrong. Strike them one at a time, and say what rules each one out before you strike the next. The survivor is the answer.
Survives elimination: A
Why: fu = gm1/(2piCL) = 77.5 uA/V / (2pi10 pF) = 1.23 MHz. Equivalently Av*f3dB = 690 * 1.79 kHz = 1.23 MHz. It depends only on gm and CL - not on lambda or ro.
Check
gm1 = 77.5 uA/V, CL = 10 pF, Av ~ 690, f3dB ~ 1.8 kHz. What is fu?
Check your understanding
The unity-gain frequency fu of this diff-amp is:
Answer: A
Why: fu = gm1/(2piCL) = 77.5 uA/V / (2pi10 pF) = 1.23 MHz. Equivalently Av*f3dB = 690 * 1.79 kHz = 1.23 MHz. It depends only on gm and CL - not on lambda or ro.
Connect it up
Draw it
One page, no notation unless you need it: draw how these connect — Part (a) The DC operating point · Part (b) The differential gain · Part (c) Input common-mode range · Part (d) 3-dB and unity-gain frequency. Put an arrow wherever one of them is what makes another possible, and label the arrow with why.
Recap
| quantity | result |
|---|---|
| ID per branch | 5 uA |
| VGS (NMOS) / VSG (PMOS) | 0.929 V / 1.058 V |
| VS / Vout | 1.571 V / 3.942 V |
| gm1 / Rout | 77.5 uA/V / 8.89 Mohm |
| Av | ~690 (57 dB) |
| f3dB / fu | ~1.8 kHz / ~1.23 MHz |
Next in HW3: P2, the two-stage op-amp - this OTA becomes its first stage, and a common-source second stage (plus Miller compensation) adds the rest of the gain.
Want this taught 1-on-1? Alexander tutors Analog CMOS IC Design — $55/session, free consultation.